Test Information:
Total Questions 195
Test Number: CEN
Vendor Name: Medical Tests
Cert Name: CERTIFIED EMERGENCY NURSE
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Question: 1
You are
administering a Snellen chart test to a patient. What results would you expect
to get if your patient was legally blind?
A. 20/20
vision
B. 20/40 vision
C. 20/60 vision
D. 20/200 vision
Answer: D
Explanation: The patient would be considered legally blind if the
result of the Snellen chart test is 20/200 vision. This means that the patient
is able to read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 200
feet. Legal blindness is defined as 20/200 or less with corrected vision or
visual acuity of less than 20 degrees of the visual field in the better eye.
Question: 2
What is
the normal intraocular pressure of the eye?
A. 2 to 7
mm Hg
B. 10 to 21 mm Hg
C. 22 to 30 mm Hg
D. 31 to 35 mm Hg
Answer: B
Explanation:
The normal intraocular pressure of the eye is 10 to 21 mm Hg. The test used to
measure intraocular pressure is called a tonometry. This is how glaucoma is
diagnosed. A patient with glaucoma would have an intraocular pressure of 30 to
70 mm Hg.
Question: 3
Your
patient has been diagnosed with a hyphema following hitting their head on the
steering wheel during
a car
accident. What position would you want to place this patient in?
A. Supine
B. Semi- fowlers
C. Lateral
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: B
Explanation:
The patient should be placed in semi-fowlers position on bed rest. A hyphema is
caused by a force, such as hitting your head on the steering wheel, strong
enough to break the blood vessels in the eye. Placing the patient in
semi-fowlers position lets gravity work to keep the hyphema away from the
optical center of the cornea.
Question: 4
Your
patient has arrived in the emergency department with a penetrating eye injury.
You are assessing the patient. What should your first action be?
A. Remove
any objects from the eye.
B. Place a patch over the eye.
C. Perform a visual acuity test.
D. Use sterile saline to irrigate the eye.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You would want to perform visual acuity tests on the affected eye first. This
allows the nurse to assess any damage to the vision. Any foreign objects in the
eye should only be removed by an ophthalmologist. Do not cover or rinse eye
because it may dislodge foreign objects and cause further damage to the eye.
Question: 5
Your
patient has arrived in the emergency department with a chemical eye injury.
Your first action should be to:
A. Perform
a visual acuity test
B. Use
sterile saline to irrigate the eye
C. Place antibiotic ointment in the eye
D. Place a patch over the eye
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first reaction by the nurse should be to irrigate the eye with normal
saline. This should be done for at least 10 minutes to remove any chemicals
from the eye. Following irrigation of the eye the patient should have visual
acuity tests to determine the extent of damage to the eye.
Question: 6
You are
caring for a patient who has come into the emergency department with a foreign
body in his right ear. After further investigation you determine that the
foreign object is an insect. What intervention would the physician order first
for this client?
A. Sterile
normal saline irrigation
B. Diluted alcohol irrigation
C. Antibiotic ear drops
D. Corticosteroids ointment
Answer: B
Explanation:
The nurse would know that the physician will order diluted alcohol irrigation
of the affected ear. This will suffocate the insect so it can be removed from
the ear with forceps. If the foreign object were vegetable matter, irrigation
would not be performed due to the enlargement of the object when it is
hydrated, which would make the impaction worse.
Question: 7
When
caring for a patient what sign would indicate that he might have a basal skull
fracture?
A. The
auditory canal has purulent drainage.
B. The auditory canal has bloody or clear
drainage.
C. Epistaxis
D. Periorbital edema
Answer: B
Explanation:
A basal skull fracture would be indicated by bloody or clear drainage from the
auditory canal. This indicates a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the fracture.
This is a medical emergency and needs to be addressed by the physician
immediately.
Question: 8
You are
caring for a patient who complains of tinnitus. What part of the ear do you
suspect is the most likely cause of the patient’s complaint?
A.
External ear
B. Middle ear
C. Inner ear
D. Auricle
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tinnitus is the most common complaint of patients with disorders of the inner
ear. Tinnitus is a ringing in the ear that can be loud intolerable ringing or
mild ringing that can be unnoticed during the day.
Question: 9
You are
caring for a patient who has had a right eye cataract removal. What discharge
instruction would you want to include in the plan of care?
A. Do not
sleep on right side.
B. Do not sleep on left side.
C. Do not sleep with head elevated.
D. Do wear glasses until physician says it is
okay.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient should not sleep on the right side following surgery. The patient
should be
placed in
a semi-Fowler position to minimize edema and intraocular pressure. The patient
should wear glasses and a protective shield over the affected eye.
Question: 10
You have
delegated the care of an older patient with hearing loss to a nursing
assistant. You tell the nursing assistant that patients with this diagnosis:
A. Are often
distracted.
B. Respond better to low pitched sounds.
C. Have middle ear changes.
D. Develop moist cerumen production.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Older patients with hearing loss respond better to low pitch sounds.
Age-related changes of the inner ear are called presbycusis. As a result of
these changes the patient often loses the ability to hear high-pitched sounds.
Question: 11
The most
appropriate action by the nurse who is preparing to communicate with an older
patient who has hearing loss is:
A. Stand
in front of the patient.
B. Exaggerate lip movements.
C. Obtain a sign language interpreter.
D. Pantomime and write the patient notes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The nurse should stand in front of the patient with hearing loss while trying
to communicate with them. By standing in front of the patient and providing
adequate lighting, the nurse insures that the patient can see the nurse
clearly. If there is still difficulty communicating, then notes and pantomime
can be used.
Question: 12
Which of
the following assessments would make the nurse suspect that a child has
strabismus?
A. Tilts
head to see
B. Turns head to see
C. Does not respond when spoken to
D. Has difficulty hearing
Answer: A
Explanation:
A child with strabismus will tilt head to see. Strabismus is when the
extraocular muscles have a lack of coordination so the eyes do not align. The
patient may complain of frequent headaches and squint to see and may need to go
to surgery to realign the weak muscles if nonsurgical interventions do not
work.
Question: 13
You are caring
for a child with chlamydial conjunctivitis. What would you want to investigate
if you had a patient with this diagnosis?
A.
Presence of an allergy
B. Possible trauma
C. Possible sexual abuse
D. Presence of a respiratory infection
Answer: C
Explanation:
The nurse would want to investigate possible sexual abuse. This diagnosis in a
child who is not sexually active should trigger suspicions in the nurse.
Allergy, trauma and infection can all cause conjunctivitis, but chlamydia is a
sexually transmitted disease.
Question: 14
You are
caring for a child who is going to have a tonsillectomy. Which of the following
laboratory results would you want to check preoperatively?
A.
Prothrombin time
B.
Sedimentation rate
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Creatinine
Answer: A
Explanation:
The nurse would want to check the prothrombin time preoperatively and report
any abnormal results to the surgeon. The tonsillar area is very vascular, which
can increase the patient’s chance of bleeding. If the prothrombin time is not
adequate, the patient could bleed to death.
Question: 15
You are
caring for a child who will have a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would
increase the child’s risk of aspiration during surgery?
A.
Difficulty swallowing
B. Loose teeth
C. Bleeding
D. Exudate in the throat
Answer: B
Explanation:
If the child has loose teeth it increases the risk of aspiration. A and D are
symptoms that indicate the need for surgery. C will be taken care of during
surgery with suctioning and packing. Therefore it is important that the nurse
check the child for loose teeth prior to surgery to prevent aspiration.
Question: 16
You are
caring for the child who has had a tonsillectomy. The physician has written
postoperative orders. Which of the following orders would the nurse question?
A. Clear,
cool liquids when awake
B. No milk or milk products
C. Monitor for bleeding
D. Suction every 2 hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
You would not want to suction a patient who just had a tonsillectomy. Suction
equipment should be available at bedside in case of airway obstruction.
Otherwise, a patient would not be suctioned due to the risk of trauma to the
oropharynx. All other orders listed are appropriate for this patient.
Question: 17
You are
monitoring a child who had a tonsillectomy. On assessment, which findings would
indicate to you that the child might be bleeding?
A. Decreased
pulse
B. Elevation in blood pressure
C. Complaints of discomfort
D. Frequent swallowing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Frequent swallowing by the child might indicate that there is bleeding. Other
signs or symptoms might include restlessness, vomiting blood, and a fast,
thready pulse. Elevation of blood pressure and discomfort do not indicate
bleeding.
Question: 18
After a
tonsillectomy, your patient begins to vomit. What intervention should be your
priority?
A.
Administer an antiemetic
B. Turn
the patient to the side
C. Notify the physician
D. Maintain the patient's "nothing by
mouth" status
Answer: B
Explanation:
Your first priority should be to turn the patient on the side to prevent
aspiration. Only then should you notify the physician. It is also important to
continue to maintain the "nothing by mouth" feeding
status of
the patient and give antiemetic if prescribed.
Question: 19
When
caring for a patient with glaucoma, which of the following symptoms would you
not expect to see on the patient's chart?
A. Severe
eye pain
B. Frequent pink-eye infections
C. Blurred vision
D. Nausea and vomiting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Frequent pink-eye infections are not symptomatic of glaucoma, but reddening of
the eyes is a common sympton.
Question: 20
Which of
the following orders would the physician prescribe for the patient with retinal
detachment?
A.
Bathroom privileges
B. Head of bed up 45 degrees
C. Eye patch to affected eye
D. Dark glasses to read or watch television
Answer: C
Explanation:
The physician would order an eye patch to the affected eye. This decreases
movement of the eye and prevents further damage to the eye. The physician may
limit activity until the eye can be repaired.
Question: 21
What is
the accurate procedure for performing a confrontational peripheral vision test?
A. Both
examiner and patient cover the same eye and stare at each other while an object
is brought into
the line
of sight.
B.
Examiner and patient cover opposite eyes and stare at each other while an
object is brought into the line of sight.
C. The patient is asked to discriminate
numbers from a chart composed of colored dots.
D. The room is darkened and the patient is
asked to identify colored blocks and shapes when they appear in the visual
field.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The examiner and the patient cover the opposite eyes and stare at each other
while an object is brought into the line of sight. This test assumes that the
examiner has normal vision. The patient indicates when they can see the object.
This tests nasal, superior, temporal and inferior visual fields.
Question: 22
Which of
the following would the nurse do when performing an otoscopic exam on a
patient?
A. Pull
the pinna up and back.
B. Pull the earlobe down and back.
C. Use the smallest speculum available.
D. Tilt the patients head forward and down.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The nurse would pull the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum,
holding the head slightly away and holding the otoscope upside down like a
large pen. The other three options are incorrect.
Test Information:
Total Questions 195
Test Number: CEN
Vendor Name: Medical Tests
Cert Name: CERTIFIED EMERGENCY NURSE
Test Name: Adobe
Campaign Developer
Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com
For
More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/CEN/
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